PART I: ESSENTIAL PROFESSIONAL SKILLS (QUESTIONS 1 – 40)
1. All the following are ways in which teacher professional development can occur except
A. attending a workshop on the common core curriculum.
B. discussing and learning with colleagues on an issue.
C. observing student behaviours during instruction.
D. participating in a seminar on lesson planning and delivery.
Answer: C
Explanation: Professional development (PD) refers to structured, collaborative, or formal learning activities designed to improve teaching. While teachers observe behavior daily, it is a routine classroom task, not a formal development program like a workshop or seminar.
2. A class teacher has identified a student with leadership potentials. Which of the following will be the most appropriate advice to be given to the class teacher to handle the student?
A. Allow the student to receive grooming on leadership.
B. Motivate the student to participate in class discussions.
C. Put the student in charge of classroom activities.
D. Speak to the parents regarding the student’s potentials.
Answer: C
Explanation: Practical experience is the most effective way to nurture leadership. Putting the student in charge of activities allows them to practice decision-making and coordination in a controlled environment.
3. In which of the following situations would peer teaching be the most appropriate professional development strategy for a curriculum leader to use? A group of teachers
A. from KG 2 put their heads together to resolve an identified problem.
B. from several schools in the district have been assigned to teach at a newly built school.
C. have identified a problem in a specific area of instruction and are ready to develop a plan to address the need.
D. wish to learn more about the benefits and limitations of a particular instructional strategy.
Answer: C
Explanation: Peer teaching (or peer coaching) is most effective as a professional development tool when a group of colleagues identifies a specific instructional challenge and collaborates on a plan to solve it.
4. The headmaster of a community high school admonished his teachers to be mindful of their conduct both in the school and in the community. This advice was given on the basis that teachers are
A. care takers.
B. opinion leaders.
C. role models.
D. surrogate parents.
Answer: C
Explanation: Teachers are perceived as moral compasses and public examples. Their behavior, both inside and outside the school, is emulated by students and observed by the community.
5. A young teacher who was posted to a school drank excessively anytime he closed from school. He was queried for professional misconduct. All the following behaviours also constitute unprofessional conduct among teachers except
A. discrimination.
B. inappropriate touching.
C. sexual harassment.
D. unnecessary criticism.
Answer: D
Explanation: While unnecessary criticism is poor teaching practice, it is generally treated as a coaching issue. Discrimination, harassment, and inappropriate touching are legal and ethical violations under the GES Code of Conduct.
6. A teacher was accused by her headteacher of misconduct when she visited the hospital for medical examination during instructional time. The most likely reason was that the teacher did not
A. inform the headteacher about her illness and absence.
B. inform the School Improvement Support Officer (SISO) of her absence from school that day.
C. inform the students that she would be absent from school for a day.
D. submit a medical report after returning from the hospital.
Answer: A
Explanation: According to the GES code of conduct, a teacher must obtain prior permission or at least inform their immediate supervisor (the Headteacher) before vacating their post during working hours.
7. The new basic school curriculum is standard-based. Which one of the following best describes a standard-based curriculum?
A. Learners demonstrate understanding and mastery of knowledge and skills as they progress in their education.
B. Learners demonstrate understanding and mastery of knowledge and skills through a standard examination.
C. Primary 2, 4 and 6 learners take a national assessment to track their performance.
D. There is a standard examination system to provide sufficient data to help improve teaching and learning.
Answer: A
Explanation: A standard-based curriculum shifts the focus from "content coverage" to "competency," where learners must prove they have mastered specific standards at each level of their education.
8. Which of the following is one of the main reasons for introducing the free senior high school policy?
A. Help parents purchase learning materials for their wards in school.
B. Make the management of senior high schools easier.
C. Provide an incentive to teachers in senior high schools in the country.
D. Remove the element of cost as a hindrance to educational access.
Answer: D
Explanation: The primary socio-economic objective of the Free SHS policy is to ensure that financial constraints (fees) do not prevent students from accessing secondary education.
9. An experienced teacher argues that the terminologies: lesson indicator, strand, and sub-strands were already in use... there is no need for that change. This teacher
A. has a poor understanding of the rubrics in the new lesson plan.
B. has weak knowledge about curriculum change.
C. lacks knowledge about educational policies.
D. lacks understanding about curriculum reforms.
Answer: D
Explanation: Resistance to new pedagogical terms often reflects a lack of understanding regarding the deeper structural and philosophical changes the reform intended to bring to classroom delivery.
10. All of the following are cross-cutting issues under the new educational reforms except
A. assessing learners' learning and progress.
B. core and transferable skills.
C. equity and inclusivity.
D. subject and curriculum knowledge.
Answer: D
Explanation: Subject and curriculum knowledge is a fundamental requirement of teaching. "Cross-cutting issues" are themes like equity, gender, and ICT that must be integrated across all subjects.
11. A teacher is introducing new content to his learners. Which one of the following strategies would best promote the learners' understanding of the new content?
A. Asking learners a series of follow-up questions to informally evaluate their grasp of the material.
B. Asking learners to read on the topic before the lesson is taught.
C. Building a concept web that organises the main ideas as the teacher discusses them.
D. Writing important specific vocabulary on the board before beginning the lesson.
Answer: C
Explanation: A concept web is a visual organizer that helps students see the "big picture" and understand how various ideas within a new topic relate to one another.
12. A pre-service teacher wants to know the difference between the scheme of work (SoW) and learner plan (LP)... Which will be your response?
A. SoW defines the content and structure of a subject whereas LP defines the short-term learning outcomes.
B. SoW is a brief document that provides an overview of pieces of LP.
C. SoW is a long-term of what one aims to teach whereas LP is a short-term and specific work to be done.
D. SoW reflects the specific objectives while LP covers the learning goals of the Unit of a subject.
Answer: C
Explanation: A Scheme of Work (SoW) is a macro-plan (covering a term or year), whereas a Learner Plan (Lesson Plan) is a micro-plan for a single day or specific instructional period.
13. A teacher had a class with learners from diverse socio-cultural and ethnic backgrounds... Advice?
A. group the class based on the culture before planning instruction.
B. learn about the diverse culture and integrate them into her teaching.
C. learn how to speak the languages of all the students in the class.
D. read extensively about the way of life of the various groups in the class.
Answer: B
Explanation: Culturally Responsive Teaching requires teachers to use students' cultural backgrounds as tools for classroom instruction, making the content more relatable and engaging for everyone.
14. ...Teacher took into consideration two learners in her class who were unable to concentrate on tasks and had speech difficulty. By her action, the teacher is demonstrating knowledge of
A. content.
B. inclusivity.
C. leadership.
D. use of TLRs.
Answer: B
Explanation: Inclusivity involves identifying and removing barriers to learning, ensuring that students with physical or cognitive challenges receive the accommodations they need.
15. A teacher had a learner... who had difficulty in mathematics... How can the teacher accurately monitor the progress of the learner?
A. Ask the learner whether the difficulty has been addressed.
B. Ask the parents whether the learner is able to solve mathematics homework.
C. Observe the learner's interaction with peers in class.
D. Study the learner's marked exercises.
Answer: D
Explanation: The most objective and evidence-based way to track academic progress is by consistently reviewing the learner's actual work samples (marked exercises).
16. All the following conditions are important in creating and managing a positive classroom environment except
A. establishing routines.
B. maximising teaching.
C. minimising distraction.
D. setting targets.
Answer: D
Explanation: Establishing routines and minimizing distractions are classroom management strategies. "Setting targets" is an academic goal-setting activity, not a direct management of the environment.
17. Which one of the following beliefs of a teacher is a result of his knowledge about individual differences of learners?
A. Learners should be made to do individual work.
B. Learners should not be compared to one another.
C. Rules should be set to guide learners' behaviour.
D. Teachers should set standards to ensure that learners reach them.
Answer: B
Explanation: Understanding individual differences means accepting that every student has a unique learning pace and style. Professional ethics dictate that students should not be compared to their peers.
18. ...How can the teacher make these rules effective?
A. Discussing the rules and regulations with parents to help their wards report early to school.
B. Involving other teachers to also have similar rules and regulations.
C. Making learners responsible for the monitoring of the rules.
D. Punishing learners who first flout the rules to serve as a deterrent to others.
Answer: C
Explanation: Rules are most effective when students feel a sense of ownership. When students monitor the rules, they develop self-discipline and respect for the classroom community.
19. Which one of the following self-directed models is the most appropriate for achieving instructional goals?
A. Building mastery of a sequential set of skills.
B. Encouraging appreciation for diverse perspectives.
C. Integrating the basic concepts of multiple content areas.
D. Promoting active engagement in the learning process.
Answer: D
Explanation: Learner-centered education relies on active engagement. When students are physically and mentally involved in the learning, they are more likely to achieve the lesson objectives.
20. Extent to which learners can use the skills, knowledge and experiences they acquire in school for life. This is known as
A. acquisition of learning.
B. knowledge change.
C. proactive learning.
D. transfer of learning.
Answer: D
Explanation: Transfer of learning is the ability of a learner to apply classroom knowledge to different, real-world contexts.
21. ...Teacher considered grade-appropriate pictorial illustrations and mental imagery to use to promote learning. Which learning theory or concept influenced the teacher's action?
A. Behavioural
B. Cognitive
C. Instrumental
D. Social
Answer: B
Explanation: Cognitive theory focuses on internal mental processes, including how mental imagery and visual organization aid in the processing and storage of information.
22. Best aid to boost interest in mathematical problem-solving?
A. Identify their learning preferences and use them to inform instructional design.
B. Keep close eye contact with learners when teaching.
C. Offer rewards to learners who put up excellent behaviour to motivate others.
D. Provide a step-by-step guide to the learners when they have difficulties in learning.
Answer: A
Explanation: Students are most likely to engage with difficult subjects when the instruction is tailored to how they personally prefer to learn.
23. Which type of team-teaching model allows for one teacher to teach the main group of learners while the other works with a small group...?
A. Alternative teaching
B. One teaches/one observes
C. Parallel teaching
D. Participant-observer
Answer: A
Explanation: This is the definition of the "Alternative Teaching" model, used to provide targeted intervention or enrichment to a subset of the class.
24. ...Teacher encouraged the group members to elect a leader... By this action, the teacher is
A. developing a healthy competition among the group members.
B. ensuring that every member is engaged.
C. instilling leadership skills in the learners.
D. shifting responsibility to the group leader.
Answer: C
Explanation: Allowing students to elect their own leaders is a strategy used to empower students and foster leadership and democratic values.
25. Absenteeism research. Which of the following steps should she take first?
A. Educate other teachers on the need for more interesting lessons.
B. Encourage parents to make sure that their children go to school regularly.
C. Explore the causes of the learners' absenteeism.
D. Persuade the learners in the community to attend school.
Answer: C
Explanation: In any research or problem-solving process, you must first diagnose the problem (explore causes) before you can propose a solution.
26. After the Basic Education Certificate Examination (BECE), a candidate was rated A for outstanding performance. Which relates to the rating?
A. Competency score
B. Percentage correct score
C. Performance rating
D. Quality rating
Answer: C
Explanation: Letter grades (A, B, C) are performance ratings that compare a student's score against a set of predefined proficiency benchmarks.
27. Diagnostic test found half of the class did not have pre-requisite knowledge. Best action?
A. Ask learners questions on the pre-requisite knowledge and continue with the new unit.
B. Change the topic and pick a new topic not relating to the pre-requisite knowledge.
C. Give questions on the pre-requisite knowledge as homework.
D. Teach the needed knowledge before commencement of the new unit.
Answer: D
Explanation: Remediation is necessary. If learners lack foundational knowledge, they cannot successfully build new knowledge on top of it.
28. 'A learner obtained 92% in an assessment test and won the second prize' is an example of
A. criterion-referenced interpretation of test scores.
B. formative evaluation of teaching and learning.
C. norm-referenced interpretation of test scores.
D. summative evaluation of teaching and learning.
Answer: C
Explanation: "Won the second prize" indicates a ranking compared to other students. Any interpretation based on comparing a student to a group is "Norm-referenced."
29. Learner usually has seizures during break time... Which is the most appropriate first step?
A. Call the school nurse to attend to him always.
B. Consult the parent for referral.
C. Report the learner's condition to the headteacher.
D. Send the learner home when the seizures occur.
Answer: A
Explanation: The immediate physical safety of the student is the priority. Medical attention from a nurse or professional is always the first step in a health emergency.
30. Action when planning to reteach a lesson?
A. Adopt a different teaching method to reteach and evaluate the outcome.
B. Investigate the difficulty, reteach the topic and evaluate the outcome.
C. Restructure the learning objectives for the topic and reteach the topic.
D. Set new learning objectives, reteach the topic and evaluate the outcome.
Answer: B
Explanation: Reteaching should not just be a repetition. The teacher must investigate why the lesson failed to reach the students and then adjust accordingly.
31. Headteachers encouraged teachers to attend a conference on innovative pedagogies... acquisition of
A. competencies on the management of students' behaviour.
B. knowledge on diverse ways of teaching in class.
C. proficiencies in assessing learners in the classroom.
D. skills in helping learners settle for instruction.
Answer: B
Explanation: "Pedagogy" is the science and method of teaching. Innovative pedagogies refer to new and creative ways of delivering instruction.
32. Teachers argue that PD activities for practising teachers is a waste of time... lack
A. interest in going for further studies.
B. knowledge of education as a life-long process.
C. knowledge of self-understanding.
D. self-motivation in up-grading themselves.
Answer: B
Explanation: Professionalism includes the belief that teaching is a lifelong learning journey and that skills must be constantly updated to stay relevant.
33. 'Content standards', as used in curriculum development, are statements about
A. how learners are meeting set standards and their progress in this.
B. how learners should perform in the subject of study.
C. learners' response to questions on specific content.
D. what learners should know and be able to do.
Answer: D
Explanation: Content standards are clear, broad statements that describe the knowledge and skills students should possess at specific stages of their education.
34. When professional teachers come together to share concerns... it is described as a community of
A. competence.
B. consultation.
C. engagement.
D. practice.
Answer: D
Explanation: This is the standard term (Community of Practice) for a group of professionals who share a passion for what they do and learn how to do it better as they interact.
35. Main reason for introducing the most current basic educational reforms in Ghana?
A. Declining quality of education and school structures.
B. Private schools always outperforming public schools in external examinations.
C. Schools in both rural and urban areas with inadequate instructional materials.
D. Systematically low rate of school attendance.
Answer: C
Explanation: Achieving equity—ensuring all students, regardless of location, have access to standard materials—is a primary driver for reform.
36. Awareness of differences in learning abilities, gender, and social background shows
A. empathy for learning abilities.
B. knowledge of social inclusion of learners in the class.
C. love for learners including the disabled in his class.
D. sympathy for the vulnerable in his class.
Answer: B
Explanation: Social inclusion is the active process of improving the terms of participation for people who are disadvantaged on the basis of their identity or ability.
37. Forced learning strategies except
A. encouraging learners to contend with each other in class.
B. engaging learners by using appropriate teaching and learning materials.
C. planning lessons to meet the different levels of aspirations among the learners.
D. provoking the learners' curiosity in the lessons.
Answer: A
Explanation: "Contending" (hostile competition) is discouraged in modern classrooms as it can create a negative environment. Effective motivation comes from curiosity and engagement (B, C, D).
38. Teacher elicits evidence... to close the gap between current and desired performance. This is called
A. formative
B. normative
C. self-
D. summative
Answer: A
Explanation: Formative assessment occurs during the learning process and is used to provide immediate feedback to close gaps.
39. Applicants credited with 10 more correct answers than they really scored. Scoring concern?
A. No, because the additional 10 points is a systematic error...
B. No, because the additional 10 points is a systematic error...
C. Yes, because the addition of 10 points has distorted the reliability of the results.
D. Yes, because the addition of 10 points has distorted the validity of the results.
Answer: D
Explanation: Validity refers to whether a test measures what it is intended to measure. Incorrect scores distort the validity because the results no longer reflect actual student performance.
40. Ways in which teacher PD can occur except
A. attending a workshop on the common core curriculum.
B. attending teacher professional association welfare meeting.
C. discussing and learning with colleagues on an issue.
D. participating in a seminar on lesson planning.
Answer: B
Explanation: A "welfare" meeting handles personal and financial concerns of members, not their professional teaching skills or pedagogical development.
PART II: NUMERACY (QUESTIONS 41 – 64)
41. Which of the following is the set of whole numbers less than 5?
A. {1, 2, 3, 4}
B. {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
C. {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}
D. {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Answer: C
Explanation: Whole numbers include zero and all positive integers (0, 1, 2, 3...). The condition "less than 5" means the set stops just before 5. Therefore, the correct set is {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}.
42. Kofi is 2 years older than Ama. If Kofi is 11 years old now, how old is Ama?
A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 13 years
D. 22 years
Answer: A
Explanation: If Kofi is older, Ama must be younger. To find Ama's age, subtract the 2-year difference from Kofi's current age:
11−2=9
years.
43. Which of the following fractions is between
2/3
and
3/4
?
A.
4/5
B.
1/2
C.
1/4
D.
5/7
Answer: D
Explanation: Convert the fractions to decimals for easy comparison.
2/3≈0.667
and
3/4=0.750
.
Now check the options:
A (
0.8
), B (
0.5
), C (
0.25
), D (
5÷7≈0.714
).
Only
0.714
falls between
0.667
and
0.750
.
44. What is the largest number that can exactly divide 36 and 84 without any remainder?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 36
Answer: B
Explanation: This question asks for the Highest Common Factor (HCF).
Factors of 36: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36.
Factors of 84: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 12, 14, 21, 28, 42, 84.
The largest number present in both lists is 12.
45. What is the decimal fraction for the point marked D on the number line?
(Note: The number line shows 10 equal divisions between 1.0 and 2.0)
A. 1.45
B. 1.40
C. 1.35
D. 1.30
Answer: B
Explanation: On a decimal number line, if there are 10 marks between whole numbers 1 and 2, each small mark represents 0.1. Point D is at the 4th mark after 1.0, which corresponds to
1.0+0.4=1.4
(or 1.40).
46. An amount of GH¢500,000 was shared among Esi, Yara, and Kafui. Esi received GH¢100,000, Yara received a fourth of the remainder, while the rest went to Kafui. In what ratio did Esi, Yara, and Kafui share the amount?
A. 1 : 1 : 3
B. 1 : 2 : 2
C. 2 : 2 : 1
D. 3 : 1 : 1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Esi = 100,000.
Remainder =
500,000−100,000=400,000
.Yara =
1/4
of 400,000=100,000
.Kafui = the rest =
400,000−100,000=300,000
.
The amounts are 100k : 100k : 300k. Dividing all by 100k gives the ratio 1 : 1 : 3.
47. The table shows the weights in kilogrammes of four babies. Which of the following statements about the babies is true?
(Weights: Peter 3.269, Clara 3.314, Rita 3.281, Sam 3.238)
A. Peter is heavier than Clara
B. Rita is heavier than Peter
C. Sam is heavier than Clara
D. Sam is heavier than Rita
Answer: B
Explanation: Compare the decimal weights:
3.281
(Rita) is greater than
3.269
(Peter). All other options are false based on the numbers in the table.
48. What are the two missing numbers represented by the boxes in the pattern below?
1, 3, 6, 10, [ ], [ ], 28, 36, ...
A. 13, 17
B. 14, 18
C. 15, 21
D. 15, 22
Answer: C
Explanation: This is a pattern of triangular numbers. The difference between the numbers increases by 1 each time:
1(+2)=3,3(+3)=6,6(+4)=10
. The next additions are
+5
(
10+5=15
) and
+6
(
15+6=21
).
49. Mireku bought six pens at shop A for GH¢21 and Amina bought four pens of the same type at shop B for GH¢16. How much more did Amina pay for a unit cost of the pen than Mireku?
A. GH¢0.50
B. GH¢1.00
C. GH¢1.50
D. GH¢2.00
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mireku unit cost =
21/6=GH¢3.50
.
Amina unit cost =
16/4=GH¢4.00
.
Difference =
4.00−3.50=GH¢0.50
.
50. Fatima planted
2/3
of her farmland with cassava,
1/6
with maize and
1/12
with okro. If the rest was left to fallow, what fraction was left to fallow?
A.
5/12
B.
4/12
C.
3/12
D.
1/12
Answer: D
Explanation: Total land used =
2/3+1/6+1/12
.
Convert to common denominator (12):
8/12+2/12+1/12=11/12
.
The portion left is
1−11/12=1/12
.
51. A fruit vendor purchased 900 oranges for GH¢180.00. 75 were rotten and thrown away. The rest were sold at five for GH¢2.00. How much profit did she make?
A. GH¢30.00
B. GH¢150.00
C. GH¢330.00
D. GH¢360.00
Answer: B
Explanation:
Good oranges =
900−75=825
.Number of groups of five =
825÷5=165
.Total Sales =
165×GH¢2.00=GH¢330.00
.Profit =
330−180=GH¢150.00
.
52. Akosua's salon charges GH¢45 per short hair braided and GH¢48 per long hair braided. If Akosua receives GH¢130 for x short and y long hairstyles, which equation represents the transaction?
A.
x+y=130
B.
5x+8y=130
C.
8x+5y=130
D.
8x+y=130
Answer: B
Explanation: Total amount = (Price of short
×
x) + (Price of long
×
y).
45x+48y=Total
. (Note: Looking at the options provided in the image, the coefficients are simplified or assumed to be 5 and 8 based on the "5x + 8y" structure likely intended by the examiner to match a simplified total).
53. Polytank A contains 5000 litres and Polytank B contains 2000 litres. Which statement is true?
A. A contains twice as much as B.
B. A contains half as much as B.
C. A contains one and a half times as much as B.
D. A contains two and a half times as much as B.
Answer: D
Explanation: Divide the volume of A by B:
5000÷2000=2.5
. Thus, A contains 2.5 (two and a half) times as much water.
54. Printing paper mapping: folds 0, 1, 2, 3... regions 1, 2, 4, 8... How many regions for the 6th fold?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: B
Explanation: The number of regions doubles with each fold (exponential growth:
2n
). For the 6th fold (
n=6
), the number of regions is
26=64
.
55. A frame is 10cm by 8cm. If 2cm is trimmed off each side, what is the new perimeter?
A. 16 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 28 cm
D. 36 cm
Answer: B
Explanation: Trimming 2cm from "each side" means reducing the length by 4cm (2cm from top, 2cm from bottom) and the width by 4cm (2cm from left, 2cm from right).
New length =
10−4=6
cm. New width =
8−4=4
cm.
Perimeter =
2×(6+4)=20
cm.
56. Floor 4m by 3m to be tiled with 20cm by 20cm tiles. Minimum tiles needed?
A. 24
B. 60
C. 300
D. 600
Answer: C
Explanation:
Area of floor =
400cm×300cm=120,000 cm2
.
Area of one tile =
20cm×20cm=400 cm2
.
Number of tiles =
120,000÷400=300
.
57. Which of the following nets can be folded to make a square pyramid?
A. Net A (A central square with 4 triangles)
B. Net B
C. Net C
D. Net D
Answer: A
Explanation: A square pyramid consists of one square base and four triangular faces. Net A shows exactly one square base with a triangle attached to each edge, which folds up perfectly to a point.
58. Average of 4 students is 6. When a 5th student is added, the average becomes 7. What was the 5th score?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B
Explanation:
Total score of 4 students =
4×6=24
.
Total score of 5 students =
5×7=35
.
Score of the 5th student =
35−24=11
.
59. Volume of container 50cm x 30cm x 10cm. How many litres (
1000cm3=1L
)?
A. 9 litres
B. 15 litres
C. 135 litres
D. 115 litres
Answer: B
Explanation:
Volume =
50×30×10=15,000 cm3
.
Since
1000 cm3=1 litre
, then
15,000÷1000=15
litres.
60. What is the area of triangle ABC (base = 40m, height = 75m)?
A. 35 m²
B. 115 m²
C. 1500 m²
D. 3000 m²
Answer: C
Explanation: Area of a triangle =
1/2×base×height=0.5×40×75=1500
m².
61. What is the modal mark of the class test?
(From the dot plot: mark 8 has the most dots)
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B
Explanation: In a dot plot, the mode is the value with the highest column of dots. Mark 8 has 5 dots, which is the maximum frequency.
62. How many teachers placed the order? (Total of bar graph values)
A. 22
B. 25
C. 28
D. 34
Answer: D
Explanation: Small (9) + Medium (13) + Large (6) + Extra large (6) = 34.
63. How many more medium-size T-shirts were ordered than large-size?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D
Explanation: Medium size = 13. Large size = 6. Difference =
13−6=7
.
64. Minimum number of packs if books are supplied in packs of 5 and 6?
A. 13
B. 20
C. 30
D. 60
Answer: C
Explanation: To find a number that can be divided evenly into packs of 5 and packs of 6, we find the Least Common Multiple (LCM). LCM of 5 and 6 is 30.
PART III: LITERACY (JULY 2025 SERIES)
For questions 71 to 74, choose from the alternatives A - D the option that best completes each of the sentences.
71. The news from the two FM stations _______ too good to be true.
A. are
B. has
C. is
D. were
Answer: C (is)
Explanation: The word "news" is an uncountable noun that is always singular in form and takes a singular verb, even if it comes from multiple sources (the two FM stations).
72. The students hurriedly called _______ the protest march.
A. in
B. of
C. off
D. out
Answer: C (off)
Explanation: To "call off" is a phrasal verb meaning to cancel an event that was planned.
73. I was shocked to see the prophetess and her husband in a heated quarrel and insulting _______
A. both.
B. each of them.
C. each other.
D. themselves.
Answer: C (each other.)
Explanation: "Each other" is a reciprocal pronoun used when two people are performing the same action toward one another.
74. It's time Ghanaians _______ to de-politicise educational issues.
A. began
B. begin
C. have begun
D. should begin
Answer: A (began)
Explanation: The expression "It is time" followed by a subject requires the past simple tense (the subjunctive mood) to express that something should be happening now but isn't.
For questions 75 and 76, choose from the alternatives lettered A - D one which represents the passive form of the statement.
75. Mansa teaches this class. This class _______ by Mansa.
A. has been taught
B. is being taught
C. is taught
D. was taught
Answer: C (is taught)
Explanation: The original sentence is in the Present Simple tense. To make it passive, we use "is/are" + the past participle ("taught").
76. The pastor will bless the marriage in December. The marriage _______ blessed by the pastor in December.
A. can be
B. has been
C. is being
D. will be
Answer: D (will be)
Explanation: The original sentence is in the Future Simple tense ("will bless"). The passive equivalent is "will be" + the past participle ("blessed").
For questions 77 and 78, choose from the alternatives lettered A - D the one which best represents the indirect speech form of the direct speech.
77. She said, "We expect the delegation to arrive later today". She said that
A. they expect the delegation to arrive later today.
B. they expected the delegation to arrive later that day.
C. we expect the delegation to arrive later that day.
D. we expected the delegation to arrive later today.
Answer: B (they expected the delegation to arrive later that day.)
Explanation: In indirect speech, "we" changes to "they," the present tense "expect" changes to the past "expected," and "today" changes to "that day."
78. "The carpenter should have returned the machine by now," said the woman. The woman said that the carpenter
A. is returning the machine by then.
B. should have returned the machine by then.
C. will return the machine by now.
D. would return the machine by now.
Answer: B (should have returned the machine by then.)
Explanation: Modal verbs like "should have" do not change tense in indirect speech, but the time marker "now" must change to "then."
For items 79 and 80, choose from the alternatives A - D the one that best expresses the meaning of the underlined group of words.
79. The army blew up the bridge before we could get there.
A. decommissioned
B. destroyed
C. renovated
D. repaired
Answer: B (destroyed)
Explanation: To "blow up" something in this context means to destroy it, usually by an explosion.
80. It is too late to draw back. The decision is made.
A. retreat
B. resume
C. sketch back
D. report back
Answer: A (retreat)
Explanation: "To draw back" means to withdraw from an action or to retreat from a previous position.
For questions 81 and 82, choose from the alternatives lettered A - D one which is opposite in meaning to the words underlined.
81. The actor appeared detestable at the beginning; at the end he was the most
A. abhorrent.
B. admirable.
C. ignorant.
D. loathed.
Answer: B (admirable.)
Explanation: Detestable means deserving intense dislike. Its opposite is admirable, which means deserving of respect or warm approval.
82. My mother is usually cheerful when it is sunny, but _______ when it rains.
A. gloomy
B. confident
C. calm
D. angry
Answer: A (gloomy)
Explanation: Cheerful means happy and optimistic. Its direct opposite in this context is gloomy, meaning sad, dark, or depressed.
Use the passage below to answer questions 83 to 85.
¹It is no wonder that Fuleratu past the exam with distinction. ²She put in alot to achieve this feat. ³When she saw her results, she could not help shedding tears. ⁴She knelt down on the pavement, gave a deep sigh and whispered, Thank you, Lord.
83. Which sentence contains a punctuation error?
A. Sentence 1
B. Sentence 2
C. Sentence 3
D. Sentence 4
Answer: D (Sentence 4)
Explanation: Sentence 4 contains direct speech ("Thank you, Lord") but fails to use quotation marks, which is a punctuation error.
84. Which sentence contains a wrongly used word?
A. Sentence 1
B. Sentence 2
C. Sentence 3
D. Sentence 4
Answer: A (Sentence 1)
Explanation: In Sentence 1, the word "past" is used. The correct word should be "passed" (the past tense of the verb "to pass").
85. In which sentence have words been wrongly amalgamated?
A. Sentence 1
B. Sentence 2
C. Sentence 3
D. Sentence 4
Answer: B (Sentence 2)
Explanation: Sentence 2 uses "alot." In English, "a lot" is two separate words. Amalgamating them into "alot" is a common written error.
