1. When a table salt dissolves in water, it becomes an/a
A. compound.
B. mixture.
C. solute.
D. solution.
Answer: D
Explanation: A solution is formed when a solute (table salt) dissolves in a solvent (water). While it is a type of mixture, "solution" is the more specific and correct term for this homogeneous mixture.
2. Which of the following acids can be found in the sting of an ant?
A. Lactic
B. Methanoic
C. Oxalic
D. Tartaric
Answer: B
Explanation: The sting of an ant contains methanoic acid, also known as formic acid.
3. Sugar is a compound made up of
A. oxygen, hydrogen, carbon.
B. oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen.
C. oxygen and sulphur.
D. oxygen, silicon carbon.
Answer: A
Explanation: Sugar is a carbohydrate with the general formula Câ‚™(H₂O)ₘ, meaning it is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
4. In addition to soil particles and water, soil also contains organic component such as
A. air.
B. humus.
C. minerals.
D. silt.
Answer: B
Explanation: Humus is the decomposed organic matter in soil, which is a key component for soil fertility. Air, minerals, and silt are inorganic components.
5. The nucleus of an atom contains
A. electron and neutron.
B. electron and nucleus.
C. electron and proton.
D. proton and neutron.
Answer: D
Explanation: The nucleus, the central core of an atom, is composed of positively charged protons and neutral neutrons. Electrons orbit the nucleus.
6. Dried plantain peels which is burnt into ashes and mixed with water forms a solution that feels slippery and taste bitter. The solution can be considered as
A. acidic.
B. basic.
C. neutral.
D. salt.
Answer: B
Explanation: Plant ash contains metal oxides and carbonates, which form alkaline (basic) solutions in water. Bases typically taste bitter and feel slippery.
7. In a neutralization reaction, acid reacts with base to produce salt and water. Identify the salt from the following products.
A. H₂O
B. H₂SO₄
C. HNO₃
D. NaCl
Answer: D
Explanation: NaCl (sodium chloride) is a salt. H₂O is water, H₂SO₄ is an acid (sulfuric acid), and HNO₃ is an acid (nitric acid).
8. The average percentage (%) volume of air as a constituent in soil is
A. 5.
B. 20.
C. 25.
D. 45.
Answer: C
Explanation: Ideal loam soil is typically composed of about 45% minerals, 25% water, 25% air, and 5% organic matter.
9. Soil profile refers to an arrangement within a soil of its
A. horizontal layout.
B. horizons.
C. moisture content.
D. particle size.
Answer: B
Explanation: A soil profile is a vertical cross-section of soil that displays its different layers, known as horizons.
10. The most important part of soil profile for plants are the A and B horizon. Which of the following correctly refers to a soil horizon?
A. A layer of soil
B. A technique used in cutting through a soil.
C. An organism in the soil
D. Factors influencing formation of soil
Answer: A
Explanation: A soil horizon is a distinct layer of soil with specific characteristics.
11. Calcium is represented as ²⁰Ca. What will be the charge of calcium if it forms an ion?
A. -2
B. -1
C. +1
D. +2
Answer: D
Explanation: Calcium is in Group 2 of the periodic table and has two valence electrons. It loses these two electrons to achieve stability, forming a positive ion with a charge of +2 (Ca²⁺).
12. Blood is considered a mixture because it consists of
A. one or more substances that are not chemically joined together.
B. one substance that is not joined to any other substance.
C. two or more substances that are not chemically joined together.
D. two or more substances which are chemically joined together.
Answer: C
Explanation: A mixture consists of two or more substances physically combined but not chemically bonded. Blood contains plasma, cells, and dissolved substances that can be separated by physical means.
13. Amina, a JHS 3 student, tested samples of aqueous sodium chloride, lime juice, caustic soda and battery acid with litmus solution. Which of these substances is she likely to observe a red colour change?
A. Aqueous sodium chloride and lime juice
B. Battery acid and caustic soda
C. Caustic soda and aqueous sodium chloride
D. Lime juice and battery acid
Answer: D
Explanation: Litmus turns red in the presence of an acid. Both lime juice (citric acid) and battery acid (sulfuric acid) are acidic.
14. The following results were obtained from an experiment to determine the water holding capacity of three different types of soil.
(Table shows: Soil I: 200ml added, 45ml drained. Soil II: 200ml added, 82ml drained. Soil III: 200ml added, 16ml drained)
Which of the following statements is true about the experiment?
Soil sample II is sand.
Soil sample III is humus.
Soil sample III has the highest water holding capacity.
Soil sample I is clay.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Water retained: Soil I = 155ml, Soil II = 118ml, Soil III = 184ml.
True: Soil II retained the least water, which is characteristic of sand.
True: Soil III retained the most water (184 ml), giving it the highest water holding capacity.
Statements 1 and 3 are the most direct and certain conclusions from the data.
15. Which stage of the life cycle of flowering plants does the seed burst and grow?
A. Germination
B. Growth
C. Pollination
D. Seed
Answer: A
Explanation: Germination is the specific process where a seed begins to sprout and grow into a seedling.
16. What tool is used to measure how hot or cold the weather is?
A. Anemometer
B. Barometer
C. Psychrometer
D. Thermometer
Answer: D
Explanation: A thermometer measures temperature.
17. In animals, when the male gamete fuses with the egg, the first structure that is formed is the
A. embryo.
B. fruit.
C. seed.
D. zygote.
Answer: D
Explanation: The fusion of a male gamete (sperm) and a female gamete (egg) is called fertilization and results in a single cell called a zygote.
18. Climate refers to
A. annual relative humidity of a place.
B. average weather conditions of a place over period of time.
C. total rainfall over a period of time.
D. weather conditions existing at a particular time.
Answer: B
Explanation: Climate is the long-term average of weather patterns in a region, typically over 30 years.
19. Which one of the statements is true about the life cycle of a flowering plant?
A. All seeds contain embryo.
B. Pollination is when a plant makes its own food.
C. The plant becomes mature in the flower stage.
D. The wind, humans and animals can spread seeds.
Answer: D
Explanation: Wind, water, animals, and humans are all agents of seed dispersal.
20. Amadu came to the realization that he perspires when his body temperature is warm and
A. humidity is high.
B. humidity is low.
C. precipitation is high.
D. precipitation is low.
Answer: B
Explanation: Perspiration cools the body through evaporation, which is most effective in dry air (low humidity).
21. The practice of growing cowpea and maize on a piece of land at the same time is known as
A. crop rotation.
B. mixed cropping.
C. mixed farming.
D. organic farming.
Answer: B
Explanation: Mixed cropping (or intercropping) is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same land.
22. The male organ that introduces semen into the vagina of a female is the
A. epididymis.
B. penis.
C. sperm duct.
D. testes.
Answer: B
Explanation: The penis is the copulatory organ used to deliver semen into the vagina.
23. Indigestion is caused by all the following options except
A. eating too fast.
B. exercise the body regularly.
C. lack of roughage in diet.
D. overeating.
Answer: B
Explanation: Regular exercise promotes healthy digestion and is not a cause of indigestion.
24. In a sequential order, identify the correct process of the life cycle of flowering plants.
A. Dispersal → fertilization → pollination → seed germination → fruit formation
B. Plant → dispersal → fertilization → seed germination → pollination → fruit formation
C. Plant → dispersal → pollination → seed germination → fertilization → fruit formation
D. Plant → pollination → fertilization → formation of fruits → dispersal → seed germination
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct sequence is: A mature plant undergoes pollination, then fertilization, which leads to fruit/seed formation. The seeds are then dispersed and finally germinate to grow a new plant.
25. The male reproductive part of the flower is made up of the
A. anther and filament.
B. anther and style.
C. filament and carpel.
D. stigma and filament.
Answer: A
Explanation: The male part (stamen) consists of the anther (produces pollen) and the filament (stalk).
26. Which of the following characteristic features is not associated with wind pollinated flowers?
A. The petals are dull.
B. They are small and inconspicuous.
C. They have no attractive scent.
D. They produce nectar.
Answer: D
Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers don't need to attract pollinators, so they do not produce nectar, which is a reward for insects or birds.
27. In an experiment, Fatima placed viable bean seeds on a dry cotton wool in a glass jar and left it under room temperature for 7 days. The aim of this experiment was to determine if
A. air is required for germination.
B. air is required for growth.
C. water is required for germination.
D. water is required for growth.
Answer: C
Explanation: The experiment provided air and temperature but withheld water. Observing no germination would prove that water is necessary for it.
28. Which of the following statements explains what is likely to happen if a flower has no sepals?
A. Insects will destroy the flower at bud stage.
B. No pollen grain will be received during pollination.
C. Pollen grain produced will reduce.
D. The flower will not attract insects for pollination.
Answer: A
Explanation: Sepals protect the flower during the bud stage. Without them, the developing flower is vulnerable to pests and physical damage.
29. I am a climatic factor. I reduce the rate of evaporation in plants and animals. I am dependent on temperature in the air. The higher the temperature, the lower I am, and the lower the temperature, the higher I am. Who am I?
A. Humidity
B. Moisture
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
Answer: A
Explanation: This describes relative humidity. High humidity slows evaporation, and for a fixed amount of water vapor, relative humidity decreases as temperature rises and increases as temperature falls.
30. The climatic factor that can increase and reduce the rate of water loss in plants and animals and also has direct effect on both plants and animals as well as agriculture is known as
A. humidity.
B. moisture.
C. pressure.
D. temperature.
Answer: D
Explanation: Temperature directly affects metabolic rates and the rate of evaporation (transpiration/sweating), making it a primary factor influencing life and agriculture.
31. Calculate the molar mass of CaCO₃. [Ca = 40 C = 12 O = 16]
A. 56g/mol
B. 98g/mol
C. 100g/mol
D. 101g/mol
Answer: C
Explanation: Molar Mass = (1 × Ca) + (1 × C) + (3 × O) = (1 × 40) + (1 × 12) + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100 g/mol .
32. Use the diagram to answer the question.
(Diagram of a flower)
Identify the parts labelled D, C, F and J.
A. D is stigma, F is anther and J is sepal.
B. D is anther, C is style and F is petal.
C. D is anther, F is style and J is petal.
D. D is stigma, C is style, F is anther and J is petal.
Answer: D
Explanation: Based on standard flower diagrams: D=Stigma (receives pollen), C=Style (connects stigma to ovary), F=Anther (produces pollen), J=Petal (attracts pollinators).
33. For what reason(s) will you advise citizens of your country against activities that lead to increase global temperature if you are the Minister for Environment, Science and Technology?
I. Desertification
II. Destruction of human settlement
III. Destruction of infrastructure
IV. Endangering of species
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. I only
D. II and III
Answer: B
Explanation: Increased global temperature leads to climate change, which causes desertification, threatens settlements (e.g., via sea-level rise), and endangers species by altering habitats.
34. Which of the following crop rotation practices sustains soil fertility?
A. Cassava followed by cowpea
B. Rice followed by wheat
C. Sorghum followed by pepper
D. Yam followed by cocoyam
Answer: A
Explanation: A good crop rotation involves alternating a nutrient-depleting crop with a nutrient-replenishing one. Cowpea is a legume that fixes nitrogen, replenishing the soil after a heavy feeder like cassava.
35. The hormone that is released from the testes is called
A. testosterone.
B. progesterone.
C. oestrogen.
D. none of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone produced by the testes.
36. Indigestion occurs as a result of all the following eating habits except
A. eating too fast.
B. lack of roughage in diet.
C. overeating.
D. too much fat in diet.
Answer: B
Explanation: While a lack of roughage (fiber) can cause digestive issues, it primarily leads to constipation. The other options are more direct causes of indigestion (dyspepsia).
37. All the following organs are parts of the female reproductive system except
A. cervix.
B. urethra.
C. uterus.
D. vulva.
Answer: B
Explanation: The urethra is part of the urinary system; it transports urine from the bladder.
38. Joe has been complaining that for the past four days, he has not passed out faeces. From the above scenario Joe is suffering from
A. diarrhea.
B. constipation.
C. indigestion.
D. indigestion.
Answer: B
Explanation: Constipation is the condition of having infrequent or difficult bowel movements.
39. Which enzymes are activated by hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice?
A. Ptyalin and rennin
B. Pepsin and rennin
C. Rennin and trypsin
D. Renin and trypsin
Answer: B
Explanation: Hydrochloric acid in the stomach converts inactive pepsinogen to its active form, pepsin, and provides the acidic environment needed for both pepsin and rennin to function.
40. The breakdown of complex food substances into simpler units is known as
A. constipation.
B. digestion.
C. egestion.
D. ingestion.
Answer: B
Explanation: Digestion is the process of breaking down large food molecules into smaller ones that can be absorbed.
41. In farming practices, the high-quality fruit is preserved and propagated through
A. chemical treatment of seeds.
B. hybridisation and selection.
C. cross selection and selection.
D. vegetative methods.
Answer: D
Explanation: Vegetative propagation (like grafting or cuttings) creates a genetic clone of the parent plant, perfectly preserving its desirable traits.
42. Soil nutrients are needed for plant growth. Suggest one micronutrient which you will recommend to a farmer for a good yield.
A. nitrogen.
B. phosphorus.
C. potassium.
D. Zinc
Answer: D
Explanation: Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are macronutrients (needed in large amounts). Zinc (Zn) is a micronutrient (needed in small amounts).
43. During a marriage counselling, the counsellor informed her clients that non-inheritable characteristics are
I. acquired as we develop.
II. passed from generation to generation.
III. controlled by genes.
IV. physical characteristics.
Which of these characteristics are correct?
A. I and II
B. I only
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, and I
Answer: B
Explanation: Non-inheritable characteristics are acquired during a lifetime through environmental influences and are not passed on genetically. Only statement I is correct.
44. The digestive system processes food into usable and unusable materials. Usable materials are sent to the body's cells as food. What happens to the unusable materials? It goes into the ___ to await disposal.
A. large intestine
B. pancreas
C. small intestine
D. right ventricles
Answer: A
Explanation: Undigested waste material passes from the small intestine to the large intestine, where water is absorbed and faeces are formed.
45. The diagram shows the female reproductive system. Identify the parts labelled 1, 2, 4 and 5
A. Structure 1 is the ovary, Structure 2 is the oviduct, Structure 4 is the uterus, Structure 5 is the vagina.
B. ...
C. ...
D. ...
Answer: A
Explanation: Based on standard diagrams: 1=Ovary (produces eggs), 2=Oviduct (fertilization site), 4=Uterus (womb), 5=Vagina.
46. Which way does digested food finally reach the blood stream? It
A. is absorbed into the blood through the blood vessels.
B. is absorbed into the blood through the walls of the lungs.
C. passes from the small intestine into the large intestine then into the blood.
D. passes through the gullet into the blood.
Answer: A
Explanation: Digested nutrients are absorbed through the villi in the walls of the small intestine directly into the network of blood capillaries within them.
47. The correct order of reproduction in humans is by
A. birth → development of zygote → fertilization → copulation.
B. copulation → fertilization → development of zygote → birth.
C. development of zygote → fertilization → copulation → birth.
D. fertilization → copulation → birth → development of zygote.
Answer: B
Explanation: The sequence is: intercourse (copulation), fusion of gametes (fertilization), growth of the zygote into a fetus, and finally delivery (birth).
48. If digestion begins in the mouth, which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A digestive juice can react more easily with the food when chewed.
B. saliva changes some of the starches in the food to sugar.
C. tongue aids in the digestion of the food.
D. tongue keeps the food in the mouth during chewing.
Answer: D
Explanation: While all statements have some truth, the primary role of the tongue is manipulation for chewing and swallowing and mixing with saliva (C), not simply "keeping food in the mouth." This makes D the weakest and most likely intended incorrect statement.
49. What is the chemical formula for trioxonitrate (v) acid?
A. HNO₂
B. HNO₃
C. H₂NO₃
D. HNO₄
Answer: B
Explanation: Trioxonitrate(V) is the systematic name for the nitrate ion (NO₃⁻). The corresponding acid is nitric acid, HNO₃.
50. The picture represents the sperm of a human. Identify the parts labelled 1, 5 and 6.
(Diagram of a sperm cell. 1=head, 5=midpiece, 6=mitochondria within the midpiece)
A. 1 head, 5 mitochondrion, 6 nucleus
B. 1 body, 5 neck, 6 head
C. 1 head, 5 body, 6 mitochondrion
D. 1 head, 5 body, 6 mitochondrion
Answer: D
Explanation: 1 is the head (containing the nucleus). 5 is the midpiece (or body). 6 points to the mitochondria, which are located within the midpiece to provide energy. (Options C and D are identical, indicating a typo in the exam paper).
51. Arrange the following processes sequentially: digestion, egestion, ingestion and absorption.
A. Digestion, egestion, ingestion, absorption
B. Ingestion, digestion, absorption, egestion
C. Ingestion, absorption, digestion, egestion
D. Digestion, ingestion, absorption, egestion
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct order is: taking food in (ingestion), breaking it down (digestion), taking nutrients into the blood (absorption), and eliminating waste (egestion).
52. If a homozygous black male rabbit is crossed with a heterozygous white female rabbit, how many of the offsprings in the first filial generation are likely to be black if black is dominant over white?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
Explanation: The question contains a biological error: a white rabbit must be homozygous recessive (bb), it cannot be heterozygous. Assuming the question intended a cross between a homozygous black male (BB) and a homozygous white female (bb), all offspring would be heterozygous (Bb) and therefore black. So, 4 out of 4 would be black.
53. Which of the following symptoms is not associated with malnutrition in children?
A. Dizziness
B. Fatigue
C. Loss of weight
D. Obesity
Answer: D
Explanation: Malnutrition includes both undernutrition and overnutrition. However, dizziness, fatigue, and weight loss are symptoms of undernutrition. Obesity is a condition of overnutrition and stands in contrast to the others.
54. The transfer of heat from one place to another without the need of a material medium is called
A. radiation
B. conduction
C. convection
D. condensation
Answer: A
Explanation: Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, which can travel through a vacuum.
55. Which of the following substances is made up of only one kind of atom?
A. Iron
B. Bronze
C. Steel
D. Water
Answer: A
Explanation: A substance made of only one kind of atom is an element. Iron (Fe) is an element. Bronze and Steel are alloys (mixtures), and Water (H₂O) is a compound.
56. The products of the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide are
A. sodium chloride and carbon dioxide.
B. sodium chloride and water.
C. sodium oxide and hydrogen dioxide.
D. sodium oxide and water.
Answer: B
Explanation: This is a neutralization reaction: HCl (acid) + NaOH (base) → NaCl (salt) + H₂O (water).
57. How does listening to music on radio obey the law of conservation of energy?
A. Electrical energy is destroyed as the radio plays.
B. Electrical energy is converted into sound energy.
C. Sound energy is converted into heat.
D. Electrical energy is changed into potential energy.
Answer: B
Explanation: The law of conservation of energy states energy is transformed, not destroyed. A radio's main function is to transform electrical energy into sound energy.
58. Which of the following food substances do you need to take when you have constipation?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Fibre
C. Protein
D. Fat
Answer: B
Explanation: Fibre (roughage) adds bulk to stool, making it easier to pass and relieving constipation.
59. Our body needs carbohydrates to provide ___ to the body.
A. energy
B. minerals
C. vitamins
D. water
Answer: A
Explanation: Carbohydrates are the body's primary source of energy.
60. All the following features are true of clinical thermometer except that it has a
A. bulb.
B. flask.
C. bore.
D. stem.
Answer: B
Explanation: A thermometer has a bulb, a narrow tube (bore), and a stem. It does not have a flask.
61. A balanced diet is one which is made up of
A. all the six classes of food in their right proportion.
B. enough water and iodated salt.
C. equal amounts of protein, carbohydrate and oil.
D. vegetable, fruits and water.
Answer: A
Explanation: A balanced diet contains all necessary nutrients in the correct proportions for optimal health.
62. For a healthy growth, the food we eat must contain
A. a good proportion of carbohydrates and proteins.
B. oil and proteins.
C. important nutrients in the right proportion.
D. mineral salt, vitamins and water.
Answer: C
Explanation: Similar to Q61, healthy growth requires all essential nutrients in the correct balance, which is the most comprehensive answer.
63. Wooden material may be used to make the handles of cooking utensils because they are
A. good conductors.
B. hard and strong.
C. poor conductors.
D. light.
Answer: C
Explanation: Wood is a poor conductor of heat (an insulator), which prevents the handle from getting hot.
64. Heat loss by convection is prevented in a vacuum flask by the
A. cork.
B. shiny silver surface.
C. cover.
D. vacuum between the silvered glass walls.
Answer: D
Explanation: Convection requires a medium (fluid). The vacuum between the walls eliminates this medium, preventing heat transfer by convection and conduction.
65. One difference between heat and temperature is that heat
A. cannot be transferred but temperature can be transferred.
B. is a measure of coldness and temperature is energy.
C. is measured in joules and temperature in kelvin.
D. is not a form of energy but temperature is a form of energy.
Answer: C
Explanation: Heat is a form of energy measured in Joules (J). Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of particles, measured in Kelvin (K) or Celsius (°C).
66. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 40° to the surface of a plane mirror. Calculate the angle of reflection.
A. 20°
B. 40°
C. 50°
D. 140°
Answer: C
Explanation: The angle of incidence is measured from the normal (90° to the surface). So, angle of incidence = 90° - 40° = 50°. By the law of reflection, the angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence, so it is also 50°.
67. Which of the following energy transformations take place at a hydroelectrical power station?
A. Electrical energy → light energy → heat energy
B. Kinetic energy → electrical energy → light energy
C. Potential energy → kinetic energy → electrical energy
D. Potential energy → sound energy → electrical energy
Answer: C
Explanation: Water stored at a height has potential energy, which converts to kinetic energy as it falls, which then turns a turbine to generate electrical energy.
68. Plants manufacture their food by using
I. Carbon dioxide
II. Oxygen
III. Light
IV. chlorophyll
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, III, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: C
Explanation: Photosynthesis requires carbon dioxide, water, light, and chlorophyll. Oxygen is a product, not a requirement.
69. The reason why cooking pan should have plastic handle is that plastic is a ___ of heat.
A. bad conductor
B. bad radiator
C. good conductor
D. good radiator
Answer: A
Explanation: Plastic is a poor conductor of heat (an insulator), keeping the handle cool enough to touch.
70. Radiation heat transfer is characterized by
A. bulk fluid motion from the transfer or transport of energy.
B. movement of a fluid through the buoyancy effect.
C. movement of energy through space by electromagnetic waves.
D. energy transfer in the lattice vibrations of the material.
Answer: C
Explanation: Radiation is the transfer of energy via electromagnetic waves, which requires no medium.
71. A body of mass 50kg falls through a height of 5m. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s², calculate the loss in potential energy.
A. 50J
B. 250J
C. 500J
D. 2500J
Answer: D
Explanation: Potential Energy (PE) = mgh = 50 kg × 10 m/s² × 5 m = 2500 J.
72. A kinetic energy of a moving object is 32J. If the mass of this object is 4KG, calculate its velocity.
A. 4 m/s
B. 16m/s
C. 128m/s
D. 160m/s
Answer: A
Explanation: Kinetic Energy (KE) = ½mv². So, 32 = ½ × 4 × v². This simplifies to 32 = 2v², then v² = 16, so v = 4 m/s.
73. In an experiment to test for starch in a green leaf freshly taken from a tree, the following activities were carried out:
I. leaf is put into boiling water for 1 minute.
II. leaf is boiled in alcohol contained in a hot water bath.
III. leaf is washed in cold water.
IV. leaf is dipped into iodine solution.
Which of these activities remove chlorophyll from the leaf?
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and IV
D. III and IV
Answer: B
Explanation: Boiling the leaf in alcohol (Step II) dissolves and removes the green chlorophyll pigment.
74. One of the activities for testing for starch in a leaf is that the leaf is dipped into alcohol, warmed in a hot water bath. Which of the following explanations determines why the alcohol is heated directly in a water bath? It
A. stops further starch formation.
B. softens the leaf.
C. prevents the leaf from catching fire.
D. prevents the alcohol from catching fire.
Answer: D
Explanation: Alcohol is highly flammable. A water bath provides indirect, gentle heat, preventing the alcohol vapor from igniting.
75. One of the following statements is not a characteristic of chemical change.
A. Energy is produced.
B. It is irreversible.
C. It is reversible.
D. New substance is formed.
Answer: C
Explanation: Chemical changes are generally considered irreversible, as a new substance is formed. Reversibility is a key characteristic of physical changes.
76. Benedict's solution was added to a mixture in a test tube which turned brick red when it was heated. The mixture is likely to contain
A. glucose.
B. oil.
C. protein.
D. vitamins.
Answer: A
Explanation: Benedict's test is for reducing sugars like glucose. A brick-red precipitate indicates a high concentration of reducing sugars.
77. A food substance labelled K was tested with various chemicals in a school laboratory. The results obtained is tabulated below:
(Table shows testing K with Iodine solution results in a Blue-black colour)
What food substance is K?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Fat
C. Protein
D. Vitamin
Answer: A
Explanation: The iodine test gives a blue-black color in the presence of starch, which is a type of carbohydrate.
78. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
(Diagram of a vacuum flask)
Name the parts labelled I, III and IV
A. I is cork, III is vacuum, IV is rubber support.
B. I is vacuum, III is cork, IV is rubber support.
C. I is rubber support, III is vacuum, IV is cork.
D. I is rubber support, III is cork, IV is vacuum.
Answer: B
Explanation: In a standard vacuum flask diagram: I is the vacuum between the walls, III is the stopper/cork, and IV is the protective support at the base.
79. In ecology, the term community is defined as
A. different populations living in the same area.
B. organisms of the same species living in the same area that can only inter-breed.
C. the movement of organisms from one place to another.
D. the number of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a particular time.
Answer: A
Explanation: A community consists of all the populations of different species interacting within a specific habitat.
80. Amoxicillin, Doxycycline Azithromycin, and Penicillin are some examples of
A. antibiotics.
B. bacteria.
C. pathogens.
D. vaccinations.
Answer: A
Explanation: These are all common types of antibiotics, drugs used to fight bacterial infections.
81. The picture below represents a laboratory thermometer which was used to measure the temperature of a liquid. What is the temperature of the liquid in kelvin?
(Diagram shows a thermometer reading 35°C)
A. 42K
B. 308 K
C. 315 K
D. 381K
Answer: B
Explanation: To convert Celsius to Kelvin, use the formula K = °C + 273. So, K = 35 + 273 = 308 K.
82. The source of energy in food chains originally comes from the
A. earth.
B. moon.
C. stars.
D. sun.
Answer: D
Explanation: The sun is the ultimate source of energy for nearly all life on Earth, captured by plants through photosynthesis.
83. What is the chemical formula for carbon (iv) oxide?
A. CO₃
B. CO
C. CO₂
D. C₂O
Answer: C
Explanation: Carbon(IV) oxide is carbon dioxide, with the formula CO₂. The (IV) indicates carbon's +4 oxidation state, which is balanced by two oxygen atoms at -2 each.
84. The use of change in skin colour to match the environment in order to avoid detection by predators is referred to as
A. camouflage.
B. colour change.
C. mimicry.
D. secretion.
Answer: A
Explanation: Camouflage is the adaptation that allows an organism to blend in with its surroundings.
85. What is the relationship between Pressure, Force and Area?
A. Area = Force + Pressure
B. Area = Force x Pressure
C. Pressure = Force x Area
D. Pressure = Force / Area
Answer: D
Explanation: Pressure is defined as the force applied perpendicular to a surface divided by the area over which the force is distributed (P = F/A).
86. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of Friction? It
A. enables us to walk easily without slipping.
B. helps us in sharpening tools.
C. makes it easy for machines parts to move.
D. produces wear and tear.
Answer: D
Explanation: Producing wear and tear on machine parts is a major disadvantage of friction. The other options are advantages.
87. Which of the following pairs of diseases are contracted through water?
A. Cholera and dysentery.
B. Diphtheria and influenza.
C. Ring worm and tuberculosis.
D. Smallpox and malaria.
Answer: A
Explanation: Cholera and dysentery are classic waterborne diseases, spread through contaminated water.
88. A drawing of magnetic lines of force provides information on the
A. length of the magnet.
B. material of the magnet.
C. strength of the field.
D. size of the magnet.
Answer: C
Explanation: The density of magnetic field lines (how close they are together) represents the strength of the magnetic field.
89. A force of 25 N acts on a 5 m² surface area. Calculate the pressure that is exerted on the surface.
A. 5 N/m²
B. 15 N/m²
C. 25 N/m²
D. 30 N/m²
Answer: A
Explanation: Pressure = Force / Area = 25 N / 5 m² = 5 N/m² (or 5 Pascals).
90. Cecilia has numerous sexual partners. She does not protect herself during sex. She is likely to be infected with all the following diseases except
A. AIDS.
B. cholera.
C. gonorrhoea.
D. syphilis.
Answer: B
Explanation: AIDS, gonorrhoea, and syphilis are sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Cholera is a waterborne disease.
91. Magnets are used in making all the following objects except
A. mobile phones.
B. polyethylene.
C. refrigerators.
D. television.
Answer: B
Explanation: Polyethylene is a type of plastic and does not use magnets in its construction. Magnets are used in speakers, motors, and seals in the other devices.
92. A magnetic field forms around a wire carries an electric current. Explain what happens to the strength of the field as the current and distance from the wire increase. The strength
A. decreases as the distance decreases.
B. increases as the current increases.
C. increases as the distance increases.
D. increases as the distance increases.
Answer: B
Explanation: The magnetic field strength around a current-carrying wire is directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance from the wire. Therefore, the strength increases as the current increases.
93. An ecosystem consists of different organisms that interact with one another in the physical environment... Which of the following processes enables the energy to enter into the plant tissue?
A. Chemosynthesis
B. Glycolysis
C. Photosynthesis
D. Plasmolysis
Answer: C
Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy from the sun into chemical energy (glucose), which is stored in their tissues.
94. The dissolution of sugar in water is a physical change because the sugar
A. can be separated from the water.
B. can be tested in the water.
C. cannot be seen in the water.
D. cannot be separated from the water.
Answer: A
Explanation: A key feature of a physical change is that it is reversible. The original substances can be recovered. Sugar can be separated from water by evaporating the water.
95. Animals depend on plants for food because
A. only plant food can give them enough energy and make them feel satisfied.
B. only plants can convert the first source of energy into consumable items.
C. plants are in abundant on the earth surface.
D. they do not need to drink water when they eat plant food.
Answer: B
Explanation: Plants are producers. They are unique in their ability to capture the primary energy source (sunlight) and convert it into chemical energy (food) through photosynthesis, forming the base of almost all food chains.
96. Use the set up below to answer questions 96 and 97.
(Diagram shows a solution being heated in an open dish)
The set-up is used to separate
A. insoluble and solvent.
B. soluble and insoluble.
C. soluble solid and water.
D. solute and solvent.
Answer: C
Explanation: The setup shows evaporation, a method used to separate a dissolved (soluble) solid from a liquid solvent like water. The water turns to vapor, leaving the solid behind.
97. How could the principle in the set-up be applied in an industry?
A. Brewing
B. Filtering
C. Salt mining
D. Vapouring
Answer: C
Explanation: Solar evaporation is used on a massive scale in salt mining to extract salt from seawater or brine. The water evaporates, leaving the salt crystals.
98. In a magnetic field experiment, the student observed that the iron filings he spread on the paper were concentrated at the poles of the magnet. What is the reason for this observation?
A. Magnetic force of attraction is concentrated at the centre of the magnet.
B. The magnetic field strength is strongest at the poles of a magnet.
C. The magnetic field is zero at the poles of a magnet.
D. The neutral point of a magnet is more than zero.
Answer: B
Explanation: Iron filings align with the magnetic field lines, which are most dense (concentrated) at the poles, indicating this is where the magnetic field is strongest.
99. A brick is kept in three different ways on a table as shown in the figures below. The pressure exerted by the brick on the table will be
(Diagram shows brick lying flat (A), on its side (B), and on its end (C))
A. equal in all cases.
B. maximum in position A.
C. maximum in position C.
D. maximum in position B.
Answer: C
Explanation: Pressure = Force / Area. The force (weight of the brick) is constant. Pressure is therefore greatest when the area of contact is smallest. This occurs in position C, when the brick is standing on its end.
100. Use the simple food chain to explain the transfer of energy in the ecosystem.
Grass → sheep → man
A. Primary consumer, secondary consumer and decomposer
B. Primary consumer, secondary consumer and tertiary consumer
C. Producer, primary consumer and secondary consumer
D. Producer, secondary consumer and tertiary consumer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Grass: A plant that makes its own food is a producer.
Sheep: An animal that eats the producer is a primary consumer.
Man: An animal that eats the primary consumer is a secondary consumer.
